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 RTFM
This does nothing but attempt to assign the value if the 5th element in the array to the column, it does not do any date formating.
string [] dateStringArray= dateTime.GetDateTimeFormats();<br />
r["First_Resurvey_Date"]= dateStringArray[6];
To format a date you need to do something like DateTime.ToShortDateString or DateTime.ToString(...)
only two letters away from being an asset
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If you have read the code correctly, then you should notice that I have a string type 'dateString1' variable, which holds the string value of a date type data row from the datagrid[string dateString1 = r["First_Resurvey_Date"].ToString(); ]. My understanding could be wrong.
And then there is a DateTime type variable 'dateTime', which holds the DateTime type value of the String dateString1.[DateTime dateTime=Convert.ToDateTime(dateString1);]. And then the string array dateStringArray contains various date formats of the 'dateTime' variable from which I need to display [6].[string [] dateStringArray= dateTime.GetDateTimeFormats(); ] I do understand that the formatting doesn't change the datarow from the datagrid.
Now once I have got a specific format of the date I want to display to the user, I was looking for a way to display that specific format into the datagrid. Please let me know if there is any way to do that, I hope I conveyed correctly what I want to do.
Thanks in advance.
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skhan17 wrote: I need help on how to do that] [dateStringArray[6], gives the date format as dd-MMM-YY, which is how I want to display my date in the application]
You where not clear in what you were asking for. This appears you are asking how to format a date
skhan17 wrote: r["First_Resurvey_Date"]=
Nor is it clear for this context that you want a format and not a date. The name seems to imply a date.
Override the DataBind event and set the value of the column directly rather trying iterate through the DataTable and change the value.
only two letters away from being an asset
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What exactly did you mean by overriding the dataBind()?
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hi all ,
this my codebehind on login button click
FormsAuthentication.Initialize(); FormsAuthenticationTicket ObjTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, txtLoginId.Text, DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(60), false, txtLoginId.Text + "," + txtPassword.Text, FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); string encTicket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ObjTicket); string sLoginId = txtLoginId.Text; sLoginId = sLoginId.Replace(" ", ""); Response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, encTicket)); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl(txtLoginId.Text, false)+"?id="+txtLoginId.Text);
and this is web config code
<authentication mode="Forms"> <forms defaultUrl="~/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx" loginUrl="~/Default.aspx" > </forms> </authentication>
above code well working on local host .......but on live host
"~/" append with url
for example i want
www.abc.com/abc/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx
but i get
www.abc.com/abc/~/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx
can anybody tell me that where is problem
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zeeShan anSari wrote: forms defaultUrl="~/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx"
Check whether replacing ~/PresentationLayer/forms with PresetationLayer/forms does cure ....![Rose | [Rose]](https://www.codeproject.com/script/Forums/Images/rose.gif)
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it does not working.
and bellow message show on page
Server Error in '/exxnew' Application.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The resource cannot be found.
Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly.
Requested URL: /exxnew/~/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx
now i use
Response.Redirect("/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx",false);
it's work well on local host but on live host its append /~
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AFAIK ASP.NET does not translate ~ into your root web application path when used within the defaultUrl attribute.
You can most likely be able to replace it with /exxnew/PresentationLayer/Forms/Main.aspx (where /exxnew denotes your prod website's virtual root path)
"A democracy is nothing more than mob rule, where fifty-one percent of the people may take away the rights of the other forty-nine." - Thomas Jefferson
"Democracy is two wolves and a lamb voting on what to have for lunch. Liberty is a well-armed lamb contesting the vote." - Benjamin Franklin
Edbert
Sydney, Australia
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hi all,
i am posting some url to server through http request which returns result in updatepanel control so it requires me to add "x-microsoftajax: Delta=true
header, but it returns me error code 400...
but if i remove this header i get the page but without that updatepanel which contains the required data for me....please can anyone assist me on this.
Thanks A Ton
Ash_VCPP
walking over water is just knowing where the stones are.....
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Are you using XmlHttpRequest for this??
I think what asp.NET does... from within the updatepanel.. if a request is made. the postback is suppressed and AJAX page creates an XMLHttpRequest object and places the special request with x-microsoft: Delta=true and receives only the part of data which corresponds to the update panel..
This is purely an AJAX request and the output you get from those request will not hold the entire page. If are putting your custom request by making an object of XMLHttpRequest yourself, you need to know what are the other things that the request must contain before this could get an output. This is purely a custom request made by Microsoft. 400 means bad request or Page doesnt exists...
Thus rather than making this type of request, it is always better to expose the data in one page and make a call normally to it. Tweaking between custom forms and viewstate entries is not always good... (At least who knows this internal form structure might change in next version of UpdatePanel)
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Hi Abhishek,
Thanks for the reply..
but what about it "but if i remove this header(x-microsoftajax: Delta=true ) i get the page but without that updatepanel which contains the required data for me....."
Yes i am using HTTPRequest object.
so as you said i should try to send httprequest without view source and other stuff but can you explain it a bit more that what i should exactly do.
Thanks A Ton
Ash_VCPP
walking over water is just knowing where the stones are.....
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This really isn't related to ASP.NET, it would probably be more appropriate in the C# or .NET Framework forums.
However, you can try something like this
baContact.BusinesTypeReference.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.BusinessType", "ID", businessTypeID);
only two letters away from being an asset
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Thanks, I'll try that. I think most people using the entity framework are doing some form of ASP.net, so I figured this would give the best chance of getting answer. Thanks for the reply.
I didn't get any requirements for the signature
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I tried the above and it said object reference not set to an instance of an object 
Edit I think it was because the baContact is null. It hasn't been inserted into the database yet.
I didn't get any requirements for the signature
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SqlData.BusinessAssociateContactChangeRequest baContact = new BusinessAssociateWorkFlow.SqlData.BusinessAssociateContactChangeRequest();
How can baContact be null? It doesn't matter if it inserting into the database or not at this point.
only two letters away from being an asset
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I'm not sure. The error was object reference not set to an instance. I don't what else it could have been.
I didn't get any requirements for the signature
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<br />
int baRequestTypeId = int.Parse(this.rblMode.SelectedValue);<br />
int baAssociateTypeId = int.Parse(this.rcbAssociateType.SelectedValue);<br />
int baBusinessTypeId = int.Parse(this.rcbBusinessType.SelectedValue);<br />
<br />
<br />
<br />
SqlData.BusinessAssociateWorkFlowData dataContext = new BusinessAssociateWorkFlow.SqlData.BusinessAssociateWorkFlowData();<br />
SqlData.BusinessAssociateContactChangeRequest baContact = new BusinessAssociateWorkFlow.SqlData.BusinessAssociateContactChangeRequest();<br />
<br />
SqlData.RequestType baRequestType = (from r in dataContext.RequestType<br />
where r.RequestTypeId == baRequestTypeId<br />
select r).First();<br />
<br />
SqlData.BusinessAssociateType baBusinessAssociateType = (from b in dataContext.BusinessAssociateType <br />
where b.BusinessAssociateTypeId == baAssociateTypeId<br />
select b).First();<br />
<br />
<br />
SqlData.BusinessType baBusinessType = (from b in dataContext.BusinessType<br />
where b.BusinessTypeId == baBusinessTypeId<br />
select b).First();<br />
baContact.RequestType = baRequestType;<br />
baContact.BusinessAssociateType = baBusinessAssociateType;<br />
baContact.BusinessType = baBusinessType;<br />
baContact.Name = this.rtbName.Text;<br />
baContact.Abbreviation = this.rtbAbbreviation.Text;<br />
baContact.Code = this.rtbCode.Text;<br />
baContact.CreatedBy = User.Identity.Name;<br />
baContact.CreatedOn = DateTime.Now;<br />
baContact.LastModifiedBy = User.Identity.Name;<br />
baContact.LastModifiedOn = DateTime.Now;<br />
baContact.ContactAddress.Add(this.AddressCntrl1.GetContactAddressEntity(ref dataContext));<br />
dataContext.SaveChanges();<br />
<br />
I didn't get any requirements for the signature
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Todd,
I didn't see your original question as it has been deleted.
However, if I got this right you don't need to requery baRequestType, baBusinessAssociateType and baBusinessType.
Your baContact should contain the property xxxxReference (where xxxx stands for the foreign key class), e.g. requestTypeReference.
Instead of requerying all the types you can simply create an entity key and assign it to the xxxxReference.EntityKey property.
Example:
baContact.RequestTypeReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("YourDataSetNamespace.YourDataSetName", "YourPKPropertyName", yourValue);
Cheers,
Ed
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Your answer does seem to be the correct solution. Thank you.
I don't know if I like it though. I don't understand why a table column value can't be set as a property just because there is a foreign key on it.
I didn't get any requirements for the signature
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Hi,
I have 2 dropdownlists on a page. (DDL1 and DDL2). The DDL1 is populated by values from the database using a SqlDataSource(SDC1). DDL2 is dependent on DDL1. As soon as a value is selected in DDL1 I need to populate values in DDL2, though using SqlDataSource SDC2 which is also available on the page.
SDC2 is defined with correct select sqls and where clause parameters during design time but I need to know how I can populate DDL2 only after a value is selected in DDL1. This might sound as a redundant question though I never found a post that will help me achieve this using SDC.
Thanks for your help in advance.
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Hello Friends,
I've a GridView inside a UpdatePanel. And there is a Fileupload control inside the GridView which is fired to Update the existing image with newer one. My code is running perfectly without UpdatePanel. But as i put my GridView inside the UpdatePanel it gives me an error "Object References not set to an instance". I think this error is being generated because of FileUpload control. So i want to have a trigger control of UpdatePanel to upload the new image. How can i bind a trigger control of UpdatePanel at RowUpdating event of GridView at code behind
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If you have to refresh the grid when file upload occurs why do you place the GridView inside the update panel??? 
You can use PostBack trigger to upload files.. 
Check this[^] how they are doing fileupload from within the updatepanel using PostBack Trigger.
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